A job is a time-bound effort constrained by performance specifications, resources, and also budget to create a distinctive product or service.

You are watching: Which of the following statements correctly describes project management?

a. True

b. False


Operations consists the continuous work essential to ensure that an organization proceeds to function effectively.

a. True

b. False


A job manager needs to be pertained to with achieving wanted scope and quality (often called performance), subject to limit of time and cost.

a. True

b. False


Many various project life cycle models are offered for different varieties of projects, together as information systems, improvement, research and also development, and also construction.

a. True

b. False


Generally,the speed of work and amount the money spent remains consistent from one life cycle phase to another.

a. True

b. False


The surname and number of phases in a task life cycle are figured out by the organization(s) associated in the project.

a. True

b. False


Communications Management, one of the ten PMBOK guide Knowledge Areas, entails the processes to determine the people, groups, or organizations, the could affect or be affected by the project, analysis their expectations and impact, and also develop strategies for engaging lock in project decisions and execution.

a. True

b. False


The only an essential measures of job success space completing the job on schedule and also on budget.

a. True

b. False


In agile projects, the client representative function is passive, and also their joining is typically restricted to the early on stages of the project.

a. True

b. False


The Project management Office (PMO) is made up of the top leader in the company (CEO or other officer) and also his or her direct reports.

a. True

b. False


Which of the following instances is no a common or suitable situation come employ job management?

a. Installation a new accounting applications on a server

b. Enhancing a soldering procedure in one assembly line

c. Occurring a brand-new medical an equipment for use by clinics

d. Processing deposits and also withdrawals in a bank


In an adaptive or readjust - driven job life cycle:

a. Early results lead into planning later on work.

b. The product is well understood.

c. All planning comes before all executing.

d. The waterfall method is frequently used.


Which that the following statements correctly defines project management?

a. Project administration only depends upon checklists come plan and also execute the work.

b. Project monitoring uses knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to meet stakeholder needs and also expectations

c. Task management"s score is to maintain effectiveness of recurring operations.

d. Project management should no involve profession offs between scope, schedule and cost.


b. Project administration uses knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to satisfy stakeholder needs and also expectations


Which that the adhering to statements concerning project life cycles is most accurate?

a. The task life bicycle is the very same for the diverse types of projects controlled by one organization.

b. All research study and advance projects usage the same four-stage project life bicycle model.

c. Task life cycles space very comparable regardless that the industry.

d. Countless different project life bike models are supplied for different types of projects.


Which of the ten knowledge areas defined in the Project administration Body of Knowledge consists of the processes required to ensure the the project contains all the job-related required, and also only the work required, to complete the project successfully?

a. Interactions management

b. Border management

c. Stakeholder management

d. Quality management


Achieving project success is determined by every one of the following EXCEPT:

a. Completing the project on schedule and on budget

b. Offering outputs the please the project"s customers

c. Involving only important vital stakeholders

d. Creating deliverables that incorporate all required features


Projects are considered successful for all of the reasons below EXCEPT:

a. Organizational finding out takes place and is caught for future projects

b. Members of the team learn brand-new skills and/or filter existing skills

c. The performing organization reaps business-level benefits.

d. The team has actually used heroics to fulfill project objectives


Project failure can result from all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a. Inadequate planning

b. Enough support from executive, management management

c. Incomplete or unclear requirements

d. Unrealistic time demands


A project manager in agile jobs who serves and leads in a collaborative, facilitating way is called a:

a. Routine manager

b. Scrum master

c. Sponsor

d. Practical manager


From an agile project administration perspective, i m sorry of this constraints are taken into consideration to it is in fixed?

a. Customer satisfaction

b. Resources and schedule

c. Quality and value

d. Scope and also time


The task charter serves as a formal legit contract between the job team and also the project sponsor.

a. True

b. False


In comparison to a legal contract, the parties to a signed job charter feel obligated come the soul (as protest to the letter) the the charter since the task details have actually not yet been cleared up and the specifically, will absolutely change.

a. True

b. False


A task charter deserve to vary in its length from one-page come multiple pages, relying on the size and complexity of the project.

a. True

b. False


A well-written service case should persuade decision-makers to support the project and also inspire the project team members and an essential stakeholders come work tough towards successful completion that the project.

a. True

b. False


The project service case offers a high-level description of what the task will achieve and just how it will certainly be done.

a. True

b. False


The project grasp network is a high-level setup that shows a few far-reaching accomplishments that are anticipated over the life that the project.

a. True

b. False


A vital concept in agile projects is the something of value will be ceded at each iteration.

a. True

b. False


Risks, assumptions and constraints are contained in the job charter for this reason that crucial participants will be aware of what can prevent castle from effectively completing the project.

a. True

b. False


During task charter development there is frequently a very general understanding of the project, so any kind of budget had is approximate and should be called a preliminary budget plan with a corresponding confidence level for this estimate.

a. True

b. False


The project charter sponsor the job team the appropriate to:

a. Compose a detailed service case

b. Create a comprehensive project plan

c. Build the task mission statement

d. Start project execution


The job charter serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT:

a. Quickly screens out obviously bad projects

b. Authorizes the project manager to proceed

c. Defines skill sets essential for the project

d. Helps develop a usual understanding in between the job manager, sponsor and also assigned team members


During iteration plan in an agile project, agreement is got to regarding:

a. The length of the following sprint.

b. Confident and an unfavorable risks.

c. The definition of done.

d. In-depth stakeholder requirements.


Which of the complying with charter facets defines the job purpose and justifies the necessity of the project?

a. Scope manage plan

b. Organization case

c. Scope overview

d. Accept criteria


The milestone schedule in the job charter:

a. Is a summary-level schedule that shows how significant project jobs are sequenced.

b. Is a high-level setup that indicates a few far-reaching accomplishments anticipated over the life that the project.

c. Is a schedule the provides in-depth data for when each project task should begin.

d. Is a in-depth schedule that reflects the to plan duration because that every activity in the project.


b. Is a high-level plan that indicates a few far-reaching accomplishments anticipated end the life that the project.


Project charters typically include every one of the following facets EXCEPT:

a. Job constraints

b. Detailed source requirements

c. An unfavorable and optimistic risks

d. Project assumptions


Team operating ethics are sometimes had in a task charter to enhance team performance. I m sorry of the adhering to statements accurately describes the worth of establishing team operation principles?

a. Operating ethics identify the rules in addition to the punishments to be administered as soon as the rules space broken.

b. Operation principles define the certain work each team member will perform.

c. Operating principles increase team effectiveness and ensure that all next are aware of what is expected.

d. Operating principles are especially useful for a routine task where participants have operated together before.


c. Operating ethics increase team effectiveness and ensure that all next are mindful of what is expected.


38.

A job sponsor is wise no to sign a project charter authorizing work until the project manager and also team display that they have ____:

a. Reviewed class learned from newly completed jobs in order come avoid similar mistakes.

b. Ready a substantial schedule and budget.

c. Gathered demands from key stakeholders.

d. Learned to occupational together well.


a. Reviewed great learned from newly completed projects in order come avoid similar mistakes.


39.

Which the the adhering to statements accurately explains the duties typically connected with the development of the task charter?

a. The job sponsor frequently prepares the detailed first draft the the charter.

b. The customer generally prepares and signs the charter.

c. An ext often than not, the task manager to write the draft project charter.

d. The project manager generally prepares the service case and scope overview.


c. Much more often 보다 not, the job manager write the draft job charter.


40.

On agile projects the first iteration is planned together a milestone through acceptance criteria. However, succeeding milestones and acceptance criteria are figured out on a ___:

a. Need-to-know basis

b. Just in time (JIT) basis

c. An initial come very first served basis

d. An initial in very first out (FIFO) basis


b. Simply in time (JIT) basis


41.

In a projectized organization the sensible manager has complete, or an extremely close to complete, power over the project team.

a. True

b. False


b. False


42.

In a functional organization workers have the right to learn conveniently from rather in your discipline and keep their an abilities sharp.

a. True

b. False


a. True


43.

In a projectized organization the task manager has extensive authority for budgets, personnel and also other decision-making issues.

a. True

b. False


a. True


44.

A kind of matrix organization in i m sorry the sensible manager and also project manager have equal amounts of power is referred to as a weak matrix.

a. True

b. False


b. False


45.

Organizational society consists the values, social rituals, symbols, occupational ethics, organizational behavior, beliefs, and also practices that room shared among members of the organization and are taught to new members.

a. True

b. False


a. True


46.

If the task scope is hard to specify early in the project and/or much adjust is expected, an Agile job management technique often works better.

a. True

b. False


a. True


47.

In "personal cultures" human being display an perspective that participation is satisfying and stimulating.

a. True

b. False


a. True


48.

When the task sponsor and manager are determining how to develop the task culture, ethics should be crucial consideration.

a. True

b. False


a. True


49.

A job manager demonstrates integrity in means that incorporate making moral decisions, protecting people, defending core values, leading major change, reflecting respect, developing a culture of honesty, and also displaying full commitment come project and people.

a. True

b. False


a. True


50.

Team members top top agile projects need strong direction native the sponsor and also project manager.

a. True

b. False


b. False


51.

Which the the following is an benefit associated with regulating projects in a practical organization?

a. Combine task focus with technical capability.

b. Classic department obstacles are reduced.

c. Unified of command - all workers understand plainly what they must do since only one "boss" is offering them instructions.

d. Quick communication in between the various attributes working ~ above the project.


c. Unified of command - all workers understand plainly what they must do since only one "boss" is giving them instructions.


52.

All that the complying with are benefits associated with regulating projects in a projectized organization EXCEPT:

a. One boss - the job manager

b. Departmental barriers are reduced.

c. Workers know they will still have a job when they end up work on a project.

d. Response times and decision making are swift.


c. Workers recognize they will still have actually a job as soon as they finish work top top a project.


53.

Which that the adhering to organizational frameworks runs contradictory to the unity of command rule - the each employee works for a solitary supervisor?

a. Sensible organization

b. Siloed organization

c. Projectized organization

d. Procession organization


d. Procession organization


54.

When do the efforts to recognize a that company culture, that is valuable to recognize the species of strength that are used. In "power cultures":

a. Workers carefully follow your appointed roles.

b. Much more deference is paid to understanding than to formal authority.

c. Display screen an mindset that participation is satisfying and stimulating.

d. Supervisors exert a good deal of economic and also political power.


d. Supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power.


55.

Some organizational culture characteristics make task success much more likely. These qualities include every one of the adhering to EXCEPT:

a. Engagement that stakeholders

b. Absence of evaluation for task management

c. Teamwork across cultures

d. Cooperation to fulfill organizational goals


b. Lack of appreciation for job management


56.

The project life cycle where job teams plan in short bursts (generally of one to four weeks), often referred to as sprints or iterations, is referred to as _________:

a. Adaptive, change-driven task life cycle

b. Procedure improvement life cycle

c. Construction project life cycle

d. Predictive, plan-driven task life cycle


a. Adaptive, change-driven task life cycle


57.

In agile projects, the individual who leads in a cooperation manner by guiding teams and removing obstacles to their progression is dubbed the:

a. Facilitator

b. Sponsor

c. Scrum master

d. Task manager


c. Scrum master


58.

Which of the following executive duties is responsible for in its entirety priority setting, project an option and prioritization, basic guidance and encouragement?

a. Sponsor

b. Project monitoring Office

c. Steering Team

d. Chief projects Officer


c. Steering Team


59.

In agile projects, all at once planning is at a high level, and only the near-term occupational is planned in detail. The project work-related is conducted in iterations (sprints) that are normally:

a. No an ext than one calendar year

b. A change length relying on project scope

c. A fixed size of 2 or four weeks

d. Assigned to one person on the team


c. A fixed size of 2 or four weeks


60.

Which of the following roles and also attributes do NOT describe the main point team members on a project?

a. Main point team members often make project decisions jointly with the task manager.

b. Core team members join the project on a temporary basis come perform certain project tasks as necessary.

c. Core team members might supervise the occupational of topic matter professionals who are brought in on one as-needed basis.

d. Core team members are the tiny group of civilization who room usually ~ above the project from start to finish.


b. Main point team members join the project on a short-term basis come perform particular project tasks as necessary.


61.

The ideal time to on-board core team members is as soon as the project charter is being written.

a. True

b. False


a. True


62.

All project teams progression uniformly through five stages that team development.

a. True

b. False


b. False


63.

Synergy results in a team having a collective capacity that above the sum of separation, personal, instance capabilities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


64.

The "relationship" topics in ~ team ground rules, such together "discuss openly and protect confidentiality" and "avoid misunderstandings", should remove the need for the team to attend to how to manage conflict.

a. True

b. False


b. False


65.

A project manager understands the importance of understanding individual motives, and takes the time to ask each team member what he or she personally desires from being involved in the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


66.

A job manager"s referent power is explained as persuading rather based upon giving them something.

a. True

b. False


b. False


67.

The fostering of certain ground rules the specify acceptable habits by project team members have the right to improve functioning relationships, effectiveness, and also communication.

a. True

b. False


a. True


68.

When a task team member is no performing, rewards might not prove as efficient as a coercive strategy that threatens the team member through undesired consequences.

a. True

b. False


a. True


69.

Conflict over ideas on just how to proceed with a project deserve to lead to more an innovative approaches.

a. True

b. False


a. True


70.

The negotiation procedure involves several actions such as: preparing because that negotiation; discovering your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal.

a. True

b. False


a. True


71.

It is argued that project teams progress through 5 stages the team development. I m sorry of the following sequences ideal represents this progression?

a. Forming, performing, reforming, norming, adjourning

b. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

c. Forming, norming, storming, performing, reforming

d. Forming, storming, norming, performing, reforming


b. Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning


72.

uring which stage of team breakthrough do team members effort to jockey because that power, ask plenty of questions and establish dubious goals?

a. Norming

b. Forming

c. Storming

d. Performing


c. Storming


73.

Agile teams require urged members through a greater level of commitment, and agile teams have all of the following preferable traits EXCEPT:

a. Fail their means to success

b. Argue around everything

c. Deliver value

d. Inquiry everything


b. Argue around everything


74.

Which two job team success components have displayed the the strongest correlation to successful task performance as perceived by senior managers?

a. Clear task plans produced by the team, and effective communications

b. Common trust, respect, and also credibility and also cross-functional cooperation

c. Stimulating work environment and opportunity because that team and also individual recognition

d. Clearly defined project and team objectives, and also use of task and relationship behaviors to solve conflicts


c. Stimulating work-related environment and opportunity because that team and individual recognition


75.

All the the complying with are among the techniques project managers deserve to use to construct individual and also team capability EXCEPT:

a. Make use of coercive powers

b. Teach personal responsibility

c. Need situational leadership

d. Demonstrate an individual leadership


a. Utilize coercive powers


76.

All of the following represent common methods for making decision on modern project groups EXCEPT:

a. The job manager or sponsor renders the decision.

b. The steering team reviews the job data and also makes the decision.

c. The project team votes to make the decision.

d. One or 2 team members recommend or make the decision.


b. The steering team reviews the task data and makes the decision.


77.

Frequently, job managers absence legitimate power based top top position and also instead resort to persuading others based upon an individual relationships. This type of strength is well-known as:

a. Referent power

b. Link power

c. Coercive power

d. Positional power


a. Referent power


78.

Which the the following styles the handling problem is most proper whenever there is enough time, trust have the right to be established, the worry is important to both sides and also buy-in is needed?

a. Compromising

b. Smoothing / accommodating

c. Forcing / competing

d. Collaborating / problem solving


d. Collaborating / problem solving


79.

Which of these is NOT amongst the usual task-related sources of project conflict?

a. Priorities

b. Personalities

c. Technical approach

d. Schedule


b. Personalities


80.

All that the complying with are amongst the procedures of the negotiation process EXCEPT:

a. Clarify and also confirm agreements

b. Job-related toward a usual goal

c. Clarify both parties" interests

d. Usage "good cop / negative cop" technique


d. Usage "good cop / poor cop" technique


81.

A project manager should use effective interactions to set and control expectations of every stakeholders and also to ensure that project job-related is completed properly and on time.

a. True

b. False


a. True


82.

Stakeholders include world who have their routines disrupted by the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


83.

A stakeholder is anyone that will use, will be affected by or could affect the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


84.

Project supervisors should purposefully plan and carry the end relationship-building activities with stakeholders that cause respect and also trust.

a. True

b. False


a. True


85.

The communications management plan is finalized throughout project planning, and also should only be changed through a formal readjust control process.

a. True

b. False


b. False


86.

Common objectives for project interactions include standing reporting and also efforts to obtain approval of project outputs.

a. True

b. False


a. True


87.

Contemporary task communications generally include both push techniques such together blogs, and pull methods such together e-mail.

a. True

b. False


b. False


88.

The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process improvement model have the right to be used specifically to improving project meetings.

a. True

b. False


a. True


89.

An worry log is a record that identify the certain issues that have to be resolved prior to a certain project administration meeting adjourns.

a. True

b. False


b. False


90.

During the Manage interactions process, project managers must repeatedly monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in bespeak to regulate stakeholder expectations.

a. True

b. False


b. False


91.

________ is the process of the job team communicating and working through stakeholders to fulfill their needs (and extr desires, as soon as possible), handle concerns quickly and also encourage active stakeholder participation throughout.

a. Plan Stakeholder Engagement

b. Analysis Stakeholders

c. Recognize Stakeholders

d. Regulate Stakeholder Engagement


d. Control Stakeholder Engagement


92.

Stakeholders include all of the following civilization EXCEPT:

a. Those who occupational on the project

b. Those who routines might be disrupted by the project

c. Those who administer people or resources for the project

d. Those who will not be affected by the project


d. Those that will no be influenced by the project


93.

Which of this is NOT one of the three methods of communication that will certainly be documented in a communication plan?

a. Interactive methods

b. Push methods

c. Pull methods

d. Virtual methods


d. Online methods


94.

Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level the power, legitimacy and urgency plus a variety of additional criteria that can include:

a. Fame

b. Tenure

c. Personality

d. Impact


d. Impact


95.

The stakeholder register information have the right to be offered to advice the interests of different stakeholder teams by performing a _______ evaluation to identify where there might be common areas of interest in between the groups.

a. MBWA (management-by-wandering-around)

b. PDCA (plan-do-check-act)

c. ITSFWI (if-the-shoe-fits-wear-it)

d. WIIFT (what"s-in-it-for-them)


d. WIIFT (what"s-in-it-for-them)


96.

In the Plus-Delta an approach of assessing project meetings, the "delta" tower is provided for team members to market their opinion around one aspect of the meeting that ________.

a. To be poor and also could it is in avoided (changed) in future meetings

b. Was an excellent and must be repeated

c. To be an issue raised in the meeting should be adhered to up prior to the next meeting

d. Involves the behavior of one of the team members


a. To be poor and could it is in avoided (changed) in future meetings


97.

A primary idea in agile is the the length of day-to-day stand-up meetings need to be ___________.

a. 10 minute or less

b. 15 minutes or less

c. 45 minutes or less

d. 30 minute or less


b. 15 minute or less


98.

In order to arrangement for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. I m sorry of the statements below is NOT precise with respect to a task meeting agenda?

a. The agenda should only be shared with senior management.

b. The agenda must list the major topics that the conference in the bespeak in i beg your pardon they will certainly be covered.

c. The task manager must assure the agenda is prepared and distributed front of time.

d. The agenda must state the purpose of the meeting.


a. The agenda should only be mutual with an elderly management.


99.

A instance that requires a decision to be made, however one the the team the cannot make now, usually as result of needing more information or time, is dubbed a(n) _____:

a. Assumption

b. Constraint

c. Risk

d. Issue


d. Issue


100.

Once the task is underway, the task manager and team should manage communications by doing every one of the following activities EXCEPT:

a. Interact effectively, taking actions to ensure the recipient understands the communication and acts appropriately.

b. Communicate thoroughly, copying every stakeholders on all e-mails and team condition reports.

c. Communicate promptly, providing information soon sufficient so that it is advantageous to recipients and also facilitates fashionable decisions.

d. Communicate accurately, presenting information in a path that people are likely to interpret correctly.


b. Connect thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on every e-mails and team status reports.


101.

The project scope is the work that have to be carry out to provide a product, company or result with the required features and also functions.

a. True

b. False


a. True


102.

The priority that the product in agile is more significant than in classic project management, together the outcome, or product, will certainly drive the elaboration of the project.

a. True

b. False


a. True


103.

The task scope statement establishes the project boundaries by stating what features and also work aspects are had (in scope) and also which room excluded (out the scope).

a. True

b. False


a. True


104.

The Work failure Structure (WBS) is normally developed by listing deliverables - significant deliverables an initial and then increasingly smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified.

a. True

b. False


a. True


105.

A Work malfunction Structure should be decomposed in ~ least 4 levels in order to be effective.

a. True

b. False


b. False


106.

A WBS dictionary is a file that defines each the the terms supplied in the task scope statement.

a. True

b. False


b. False


107.

When a project team needs to build a WBS, it requirements to incorporate in its planning team a topic matter skilled (SME) that understands how each segment of the occupational will it is in accomplished.

a. True

b. False


a. True


108.

A "top-down" technique to developing a WBS is frequently used once a task is unique and also different indigenous previous projects.

a. True

b. False


b. False


109.

It is necessary to assign a distinctive name and also a distinct number to every component in the project Work failure Structure.

a. True

b. False


a. True


110.

Once the arrangement baseline has actually been approved and the job is underway, job teams deal with change by establishing and also using a adjust control mechanism to receive and also review readjust proposals and accept or disapprove them after analyzing their influence on task scope, cost and also schedule.

a. True

b. False


a. True


111.

All that the following aspects should be included in a task scope declare EXCEPT:

a. Final and intermediate deliverables v acceptance criteria

b. Project boundaries or exclusions

c. Constraints applied on the project, and also assumptions made during planning

d. Name of the task team members


d. Names of the job team members


112.

On agile projects, the scope meaning begins through :

a. Work-related packages

b. Large chunks the work, or features

c. Stories and personas

d. Requirements


b. Large chunks of work, or features


113.

It is advantageous to list requirements and also supporting info in a requirements traceability matrix. When needs are complete, they must meet every one of these criteria EXCEPT:

a. Identified with the stakeholder(s) who requirements it

b. Prioritized according to value, cost, time, risk, or mandate for this reason trade-off decisions can be make if needed

c. Qualified by measurable conditions

d. Assigned to a team member who will it is in the requirement owner


d. Assigned to a team member who will be the necessity owner


114.

The technique of splitting the job scope into countless parts that, once combined, would constitute the project deliverable is dubbed _____:

a. Decomposition

b. Requirements traceability

c. Rolling tide planning

d. Collection requirements


a. Decomposition


115.

A _______ is the approved project plan mainly consist of of scope, schedule, and also cost that is not normally altered unless a formal readjust control request is authorized for modifying these plans.

a. Component.

b. Baseline.

c. Requirement.

d. Benchmark.


b. Baseline.


116.

Which of the adhering to is no a style that is commonly used to stand for a Work breakdown Structure?

a. Hierarchical or "org chart"

b. Requirements Traceability Matrix

c. Cost-free format

d. Indented outline


b. Demands Traceability Matrix


117.

The overall project is taken into consideration to it is in the first level that the WBS. Every one of the complying with methods have the right to be offered to theorem the second level of the WBS EXCEPT:

a. Arranged by task phase.

b. Arranged by work function./ subproject

c. Organized by style components / deliverables.

d. Arranged by tasks and tasks


d. Organized by activities and tasks


118.

This method is an iterative process that identifies and defines the job-related to be fully accomplished in the near term, and also plans the future occupational at a greater level.

a. Traceability

b. Rolling wave planning.

c. Decomposition.

d. Agile


b. Rolling wave planning.


119.

The work-related component in ~ the lowest level the the WBS because that which cost and duration have the right to be estimated and managed is dubbed the ______:

a. Activity

b. Manage account

c. Job-related package

d. Work-related element


c. Work-related package


120.

A _________ is a written request or officially proposal come propose alters to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and also time).

a. Change request

b. Limit statement

c. Inquiry for proposal (RFP)

d. Project charter


a. Adjust request


121.

The an initial process in arising a job schedule is to determine all the resources accessible to work-related on the project.

a. True

b. False


b. False


122.

While the shortest level of decomposition in a WBS is the work-related package, job-related packages deserve to still be decomposed additional into work activities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


123.

A successor activity is the schedule task that complies with a predecessor activity, as established by your logical relationship.

a. True

b. False


a. True


124.

The most common form of reasonable dependency to identify the sequence of project tasks is "finish-to-finish" (FF).

a. True

b. False


b. False


125.

A obligated dependency is a logical relationship between activities that must take place - usually due to a physics or legit demand.

a. True

b. False


a. True


126.

If the project manager alters an task on the crucial path to start at a later date, climate the entirety project will finish at a later on date.

a. True

b. False


a. True


127.

To usage the enumeration method of identify the critical path, us list or enumerate all of the routes through the network.

a. True

b. False


a. True


128.

When developing a job schedule, full float refers to the amount of time a schedule task may be delay from its early on start date without delaying the project finish date.

a. True

b. False


a. True


129.

A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that reflects each work task on a separate line v the bar placed from the early on start day to the at an early stage finish date for each activity on a timescale.

a. True

b. False


a. True


130.

GANTT refers to the Generalized activity Network Tracking method which was emerged to much better understand just how variability in the term of individual activities impacts the expected job duration.

a. True

b. False


b. False


131.

During i m sorry of the following Project Schedule management processes go the team estimate the number of work periods that will be forced to finish a schedule activity, normally expressed as workdays or workweeks?

a. Develop schedule

b. Succession activities

c. Estimate activity durations

d. Specify activities


c. Estimate task durations


132.

aced with far-ranging schedule challenges, the task manager has actually an ethical responsibility to do every one of the adhering to EXCEPT:

a. Guide all stakeholders the the schedule provides sense

b. Determine a schedule that is possible to achieve

c. Provide the project according to the agreed-upon schedule

d. Willingly expropriate end dates dictated by client or sponsors


d. Willingly accept end days dictated by client or sponsors


133.

Milestones are essential points in a project schedule that can serve as inspect points for job managers and sponsors. I m sorry of the following might be a reason to determine a milestone during project schedule planning?

a. Weekly team condition meetings

b. Perfect of a significant deliverable

c. Perfect of the WBS

d. Signing of the job charter


b. Completion of a major deliverable


134.

Which the the following responses identify a common type of reasonable dependency provided to sequence job activities?

a. Last-in; first-out

b. Finish-to-start

c. Last-in; last-out

d. First-in; first-out


b. Finish-to-start


135.

This term is identified as the total number of work durations (not including holidays or various other non-work periods) required to finish a schedule activity, typically expressed as workdays or workweeks:

a. Elapsed time

b. Effort

c. Duration

d. Source days


c. Duration


136.

Agile job schedules are minimal to the quantity of work the assigned resources deserve to handle.

a. True

b. False


a. True


137.

Estimate task Resources focuses specifically upon the to know of the variety of human resources compelled to perform each reserved activity.

a. True

b. False


b. False


138.

When creating a responsibility matrix or "RACI" chart, that is crucial to ensure that just one person has primary accountability for any kind of activity.

a. True

b. False


a. True


139.

When determining resource availability, project managers need only think about full-time, interior resources.

a. True

b. False


b. False


140.

When recruiting sources to support a project, the is helpful to lug core team members and key subject matter experts on plank as at an early stage as possible, to aid plan the project and also develop the project culture.

a. True

b. False


a. True


141.

When source overloads space extreme, project supervisors may require to consider the acquisition of additional resources, to reduce in border or expansions to the job schedule.

a. True

b. False


a. True


142.

Critical chain project management is an alternate scheduling technique that modifies the job schedule through taking source constraints into account.

a. True

b. False


a. True


143.

Critical Chain Project monitoring (CCPM) attempts to keep the most very demanded resource busy on an essential chain activities, but not overloaded.

a. True

b. False


a. True


144.

Crashing is a job schedule compression method that expedites a project by executing tasks at the very same time that ordinarily would be done one after ~ the other.

a. True

b. False


b. False


145.

An example of quick tracking a project schedule would be to overlap the design and production phases for a design-to-production project, where the conventional approach would it is in to move on to construction only after perfect the architecture phase.

a. True

b. False


a. True


146.

Which of this is no an worry to be thought about when selecting team members?

a. Co-located teams

b. Digital teams

c. Cross functional teams

d. Stages of team development


d. Step of team development


147.

A typical tool task teams use is a duty assignment procession (RAM). Typically, this chart will certainly depict:

a. The early on start and also early finish, and also late start and late finish, of every schedule activity.

b. The ordered organizational reporting structure.

c. The term of every activity.

d. All the job-related packages and also the sources assigned for assorted responsibilities concerning each work package.


d. All the work packages and also the resources assigned for assorted responsibilities concerning each occupational package.


148.

The materials (principles) of vital Chain project Management incorporate which that the following?

a. Add a comfortable buffer to every task activity

b. Adhere strictly to completion deadlines - quite than finishing early on or late.

c. Protect against multi-tasking.

d. Estimate task durations generously


c. Protect against multi-tasking.


149.

Project managers must often challenge the difficulty of compressing the project schedule. Every one of the complying with actions deserve to be bring away to minimize the term of the critical path EXCEPT:

a. Overlap sequential tasks using finish-to-finish, start-to-start, or start-to-finish relationships.

b. Partially overlap sequential activities by using time leads.

c. Use the float in crucial path activities

d. Minimize the project scope and also /or quality.


c. Usage the to rise in an essential path activities


150.

Plan expense Management is the procedure to determine exactly how to plan, estimate, and control task costs.

a. True

b. False


a. True


151.

Cost estimating is linked very closely with scope, schedule and source planning.

a. True

b. False


a. True


152.

Fixed expenses remain the very same regardless of the size or volume that work, if variable costs vary directly with volume that use.

a. True

b. False


a. True


153.

The task scope does not come right into play as soon as considering fixed and variable expense choices.

a. True

b. False


b. False


154.

Regardless that what method is used to estimate job costs, supporting detail should it is in provided.

a. True

b. False


a. True


155.

A contingency reserve is money assigned come the project and also allocated because that identified dangers for i beg your pardon contingent responses room developed.

a. True

b. False


a. True


156.

Analogous estimating is the many detailed, time consuming and accurate means to estimate.

a. True

b. False


b. False


157.

Vendor bid analysis is offered to determine whether the price gift asked by the vendors shows up to be reasonable.

a. True

b. False


a. True


158.

Value design is aimed at boosting the worth or performance of a work element while minimizing the cost.

a. True

b. False


a. True


159.

A project manager needs to ensure that the cumulative amount of cash coming into the project either from internal budgeting or indigenous customer payments meets or over the demands for paying cash out.

a. True

b. False


a. True


160.

Projects often encompass indirect costs that are crucial to keep the organization running, but are not associated with one particular project. Which of the following items room most typically considered to be indirect costs?

a. Executive, management salaries, utilities and also insurance

b. Costs connected with material and purchased parts

c. The cost of labor listed by project team members, consultants and subcontractors

d. Travel cost for the project team


a. Executive salaries, utilities and insurance


161.

Costs that repeat as project work proceeds such as the cost of creating code or laying bricks are as necessary classified as:

a. Fixed costs.

b. Indirect costs.

c. Nonrecurring costs.

d. Recurring costs


d. Recurring costs


162.

Which of the following terms best describes extra money in the project budget plan to be offered if crucial - generally if a risk event occurs?

a. Padding

b. Discretionary fund

c. Reserve

d. Insurance


c. Reserve


163.

Which estimating method uses a statistics relationship in between historical data and also other variables (e.g., square footage in construction, present of password in software program development) to calculation an estimate for scope, cost and duration?

a. Analogous estimating

b. Bottom-up estimating

c. Monte Carlo estimating

d. Parametric estimating


d. Parametric estimating


164.

All the the following factors must it is in in ar in stimulate to construct an analogous estimate effectively EXCEPT:

a. An company must recognize details behind the moment value that money.

b. An organization must recognize how and also to what degree the proposed project differs indigenous the ahead project.

c. An organization need to know how much previous projects actually cost.

d. An organization must have experience in performing comparable projects.


a. An organization must understand details behind the time value that money.


165.

The documentation that a project cost estimate normally requires considerable supporting detail to include all of these EXCEPT:

a. A summary of scope.

b. Assumptions and constraints.

c. The estimating methods and also a range of feasible outcomes.

d. Monitoring reserve needs


d. Administration reserve needs


166.

There are many reasons of variation in job costs. I m sorry of the adhering to accurately defines the nature that this variation?

a. Variation occurs in all work processes and the novelty linked with most projects creates many opportunities for variation.

b. Normal cause variation is as soon as something the end of the plain occurs

c. Sport is typically greater on projects that use well-known modern technology and one experienced project team.

d. Special reason variation originates from many little causes that are innate in a job-related process.


a. Variation wake up in all job-related processes and the novelty associated with most projects creates many opportunities for variation.


167.

All that the adhering to items describe an facet of life bike costing EXCEPT:

a. Life bicycle cost contains the price of both creating the project and of using the result of the project during its valuable life.

b. Countless project choice decisions space made based top top life bicycle cost.

c. Project managers may need to think about disposal costs of the product after its valuable life is finish to calculate full life bicycle cost.

d. Life cycle cost only consists of the project cost from initiating through closing


d. Life cycle price only consists of the project cost from initiating with closing


168.

The _________is the authorized budget, normally in a time distribution format, that is provided to estimate, monitor, and control the as whole cost power of the project.

a. Control account

b. Administration baseline.

c. Cost baseline.

d. Expense benchmark


c. Cost baseline.


169.

The purpose of risk monitoring is to eliminate all job risk.

a. True

b. False


b. False


170.

When the impact of an occasion is negative, it is thought about a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.

a. True

b. False


b. False


171.

The price per risk for risks discovered beforehand in the project is often much more than the expense per risk for dangers discovered late since there is an ext opportunity for the danger to impact several size of the project.

a. True

b. False


b. False


172.

When complete, the hazard register presents the outcomes of both qualitative and also quantitative risk evaluation as well together risk an answer planning.

a. True

b. False


a. True


173.

In Agile projects at an early stage risk planning, assessment and an answer planning is excellent at a high level, and an ext detailed and also timely risk monitoring occurs throughout the plan of each succeeding iteration, in day-to-day stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives in ~ the finish of every iteration.

a. True

b. False


a. True


174.

The major questions project teams use in qualitative risk evaluation are "how likely is this danger to happen?", and also "if the does happen, how large will the influence be?"

a. True

b. False


a. True


175.

Perform Quantitative Risk analysis is the process of numerically assessing the result of identified threats on all at once project objectives.

a. True

b. False


a. True


176.

In part cases, task teams will certainly elect to alleviate a threat to a level the a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, quite than remove it completely.

a. True

b. False


a. True


177.

Risk solution strategies such as expropriate risk and also research risk apply to both threats and also opportunities.

a. True

b. False


a. True


178.

Risk response strategy decisions must reflect a thorough understanding of the top priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality.

a. True

b. False


a. True


179.

A ________ presents a ordered organization that risks based upon categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management.

a. Threat Register

b. Risk administration Plan

c. Risk breakdown Structure (RBS)

d. Decision Tree


c. Risk breakdown Structure (RBS)


180.

All of the adhering to criteria can be provided to categorize project dangers EXCEPT:

a. Once it wake up in the project life cycle

b. Even if it is the hazard is internal or exterior to the performing organization

c. Even if it is the threat is a known known

d. The project objective that might be influenced by the danger (cost, schedule, scope and / or quality)


c. Whether the danger is a known known


181.

Which of the following describes the activities accordingly performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative danger Analysis?

a. Team members specify how to conduct hazard management activities for the project.

b. Team members identify potential hazard events.

c. Team members evaluate the probability that occurrence and also severity of influence for figured out risks.

d. Team members develop contingency plans for all risks to avoid adverse impacts to job objectives


c. Team members evaluate the probability of occurrence and also severity of influence for established risks.


182.

All of the following explain the appropriate application of perform Quantitative Risk analysis in project management EXCEPT:

a. Large, complex and expensive projects stand to advantage from the additional rigor that quantitative risk analysis techniques.

b. Quantitative approaches are used when the is an important to suspect the probability of perfect a task on time or within budget plan with confidence.

c. Decision Tree evaluation and Simulation methods such as Monte Carlo analysis are examples of useful quantitative risk analysis techniques.

d. Brainstorming techniques are supplied by the team and other stakeholders to determine as many project threats as possible. Hide Feedback


d. Brainstorming approaches are used by the team and other stakeholders to determine as plenty of project dangers as possible. Hide Feedback


183.

Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram come support job risk analysis?

a. The project team starts by identifying strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

b. The team organizes assumptions and constraints in a fishbone pattern.

c. The team list the danger as the "effect" in a crate at the head that a fish, climate names the large bones.

d. Team members are motivated to keep asking "when?" to malfunction risks into much more detailed causes.


c. The team perform the hazard as the "effect" in a box at the head that a fish, then names the big bones


184.

Which of the complying with quantitative risk evaluation techniques is supplied to recognize which dangers have the most an effective impact top top the project, v results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram?

a. Sensitivity Analysis

b. Simulation approaches such as Monte Carlo Analysis

c. Expected monetary Value (EMV)

d. Fail Mode and also Effects evaluation (FMEA)


a. Sensitivity Analysis


185.

All that the following explain an appropriate application of setup Risk Responses in project monitoring EXCEPT:

a. The expectations of the sponsor and key stakeholders should affect the danger responses that room developed.

b. Responses should be developed for every identified project risk, nevertheless of the hazard score.

c. Risk solution planning should attend to both opportunities and threats.

d. Regularly multiple strategies are identified for a single risk.


b. Responses should be created for every established project risk, regardless of the hazard score.


186.

All that the adhering to are amongst the standard risk solution strategies EXCEPT:

a. Boost an opportunity

b. Prevent a threat

c. Deliver a threat

d. Re-publishing a threat


d. Re-publishing a threat


187.

Which the the following tasks illustrates a risk an answer strategy draft to study a risk or an opportunity?

a. Establish triggers and also update them frequently

b. Develop time or expense contingencies

c. Identify a hazard owner to each high priority risk

d. Construct a prototype come learn more about a candidate solution


d. Construct a prototype to learn much more about a candidate solution


188.

Monitoring and controlling project occupational refers to the procedures of tracking, reviewing and reporting progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the job plan.

a. True

b. False


a. True


189.

Self-directed groups on agile jobs are mainly empowered to decide what job-related to do and when to do it, continuous with the prioritizing of deliverables by the product owner.

a. True

b. False


a. True


190.

A quality audit is a project management and also quality tool that is a structured procedure to certain project activities comply with business policies.

a. True

b. False


a. True


191.

On agile projects, since communication is frequent and also rapid, a directional indicator mirroring that things room getting better or worse in some manner is an ext valuable than a more detailed and polished report.

a. True

b. False


a. True


192.

Control top quality is the forward-looking process of using and improving the high quality plan and also policy come perform work that will certainly most most likely lead to producing project outputs come customers" satisfaction.

a. True

b. False


b. False


193.

The purpose of a inspect sheet is to easily understand the primary reasons of a particular problem using the 80/20 rule.

a. True

b. False


b. False


194.

In a regulate chart, a suggest that occurs above the upper manage limit typically way that some kind of special cause is producing the variation and requires a particular intervention.

a. True

b. False


a. True


195.

When reporting power to sponsors and management, the is often helpful to to organize the info in regards to three time horizons: past, current and future.

a. True

b. False


a. True


196.

Earned worth (EV) is the approved value of the occupational to be completed in a given time.

a. True

b. False


b. False


197.

The expense Variance (CV) is a price performance measure expressed together the ratio of earned worth (EV) come actual cost (AC).

a. True

b. False


b. False


198.

This Agile job reporting device is beneficial to Scrum Masters together it projects exactly how close to setup the team is within a offered time box, by providing a graphical depiction of work initiative remaining in one iteration matches the days left in an iteration.

a. Progress report

b. Burndown chart

c. Manage chart

d. Run chart


b. Burndown chart


199.

This is the procedure of reviewing all change proposals, estimating their affect on project goals wherever appropriate, providing or declining changes, and managing transforms to deliverables, schedules, budgets and also the project administration plan:

a. Perform variance evaluation and control.

b. Execute project monitoring.

c. Perform integrated readjust control.

d. Execute configuration management


c. Perform integrated readjust control.


200.

Some establishments rely upon a formal group authorized and also responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting any kind of changes to any kind of aspect of the project plan by adhering to a official communication technique of documenting the decision process. This team is commonly known as a:

a. Task evaluation committee.

b. Steering committee

c. Adjust control board.

d. Stakeholder testimonial board.


c. Readjust control board.


201.

With respect to power reporting, i m sorry of these are the actual and raw observations and measurements gathered during execution of job activities?

a. Work-related performance data

b. Job-related performance analysis

c. Occupational performance reports

d. Work performance information


a. Occupational performance data


202.

One useful method of process improvement involves consideration of how another organization performs a process, identifying and assessing best methods for innovation ideas. This an approach is well-known as:

a. Root cause analysis

b. To compare improvement

c. Voice the the customer

d. Benchmarking


d. Benchmarking


203.

During schedule and cost control, once comparing power to the schedule and cost baselines, if schedule or spending plan has changed these changes should be:

a. Reviewed through the client or sponsor to obtain approval for additional funding

b. Official recommended and managed through the integrated change control system

c. Added to the initial baselines, and baseline alters made come reflect the brand-new status

d. Implemented immediately and also reported together variances from baseline in the following status report


b. Official recommended and also managed through the integrated readjust control system


204.

All of the complying with accurately explain earned value monitoring EXCEPT:

a. It allows a task team to recognize progress in regards to both cost and schedule.

b. It is an excellent for power reporting however not because that forecasting

c. That is provided as a decision-making tool.

d. The is supplied to do predictions concerning the task schedule and also cost manage until the project"s conclusion.


b. The is an excellent for power reporting but not because that forecasting


205.

The spending plan at perfect (BAC) is the sum of every budgets created for the occupational to be performed ~ above a project. Because of this it is equivalent to:

a. The full value of the work completed come date

b. The complete planned worth of the project

c. The complete actual price of the project.

d. The full earned worth of the project.

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b. The full planned value of the project


206.

Which that the adhering to measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule?